CLU Qualified Plans and Retirement Practice Questions

  1. Question 1

    A 401(k) plan uses the current-year ADP test. The average deferral percentage of the non-highly compensated employee (NHCE) group is 5%. What is the maximum average deferral percentage the highly compensated employee (HCE) group may have to pass the test?

    • A. 5.0%, because the HCE average must equal the NHCE average
    • B. 6.25%, because the HCE average may be 1.25 times the NHCE average
    • C. 7.0%, because the HCE average may exceed the NHCE average by 2 percentage points
    • D. 10.0%, because the HCE average may be twice the NHCE average
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 7.0%, because the HCE average may exceed the NHCE average by 2 percentage points

    The ADP test allows the HCE average to be the greater of 1.25 times the NHCE average, or the lesser of 2 times the NHCE average and the NHCE average plus 2 points. With NHCE at 5%, 1.25 x 5% = 6.25% and the lesser of 10% and 7% is 7%, so 7.0% is the maximum.

    • A. The test permits the HCE average to exceed the NHCE average.
    • B. 1.25 times applies only when the NHCE average is above 8%; here the plus-2 point test gives a higher limit.
    • C. Correct. With NHCE between 2% and 8%, the HCE limit is NHCE plus 2 percentage points.
    • D. Twice the NHCE average applies only when NHCE is 2% or less; the plus-2 rule is the lesser limit here.
  2. Question 2

    In a typical split-dollar life insurance arrangement between an employer and a key employee, the parties share which elements of the policy?

    • A. The costs (premiums) and/or the benefits (cash value and death benefit) of the policy, split between the employer and employee according to a written agreement
    • B. The employee's personal income tax liability on the policy, with the employer contributing nothing toward premiums and acquiring no rights in the policy's benefits
    • C. The employer's general commercial liability insurance policy
    • D. Neither costs nor benefits; the employer simply pays the full premium as taxable compensation and the employee owns the policy outright with no written agreement between them
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. The costs (premiums) and/or the benefits (cash value and death benefit) of the policy, split between the employer and employee according to a written agreement

    Split-dollar arrangements involve an employer and employee (or sometimes two parties in an estate planning context) sharing the economics of a life insurance policy — typically the premium cost and the eventual cash value/death benefit — under a written agreement that specifies each party's rights and taxed under either the economic benefit regime or the loan regime, depending on how the arrangement is structured. Choices B, C, and D each mischaracterize what is actually being split.

    • A. Correct. In a split-dollar arrangement, the employer and employee share the costs (premiums) and/or the benefits (cash value and death benefit) of the policy according to a written agreement between them.
    • B. Split-dollar involves sharing actual costs and/or benefits of the policy itself; an arrangement where the employer contributes nothing and has no rights in the benefits is not a sharing arrangement at all.
    • C. Split-dollar concerns a life insurance policy's costs and benefits; it has no connection to the employer's general commercial liability coverage.
    • D. This describes straightforward compensation with outright employee ownership, not a split-dollar arrangement, which depends on a written agreement under which the employer and employee share the policy's costs and/or benefits.
  3. Question 3

    A participant with a vested account balance of $120,000 in her employer's 401(k) plan wants to take the maximum permissible plan loan. Under IRC Section 72(p), what is the maximum amount she may generally borrow?

    • A. $120,000, the full vested balance
    • B. $60,000, or 50% of her vested balance
    • C. $50,000, the statutory dollar cap, since 50% of her vested balance exceeds it
    • D. There is no dollar cap on qualified plan loans, only a percentage limit of half her balance
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. $50,000, the statutory dollar cap, since 50% of her vested balance exceeds it

    Section 72(p) caps plan loans at the lesser of $50,000 or 50% of the participant's vested account balance. Here, 50% of $120,000 is $60,000, but the statutory $50,000 dollar cap is lower and therefore controls, limiting the maximum loan to $50,000.

    • A. Incorrect — IRC §72(p) never permits borrowing the full vested balance; both a percentage limit and a dollar cap apply.
    • B. Incorrect — while 50% of her balance is $60,000, this ignores the statutory dollar cap, which is lower and controls in this case.
    • C. Correct. The lesser of 50% of the vested balance ($60,000) or the $50,000 statutory cap applies, and since $60,000 exceeds $50,000, the maximum loan is $50,000.
    • D. Incorrect — §72(p) imposes both a percentage limit and an absolute dollar cap, so a limit based only on half her balance is not the rule.
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  5. Question 4

    A retirement plan participant who fails to withdraw the full required minimum distribution (RMD) by the applicable deadline is subject to:

    • A. Immediate disqualification of the entire plan for all participants
    • B. Forfeiture of the participant's entire account balance to the plan
    • C. No penalty at all, as long as the participant eventually withdraws the correct amount in a later year
    • D. An excise tax penalty imposed on the amount of the shortfall that was not timely withdrawn
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. An excise tax penalty imposed on the amount of the shortfall that was not timely withdrawn

    Missing an RMD triggers an excise tax penalty on the shortfall — the amount that should have been withdrawn but wasn't — rather than jeopardizing the plan's overall qualified status or the participant's entire account. The penalty can potentially be reduced or waived by the IRS for reasonable cause and timely correction, but it is not simply avoidable by waiting.

    • A. Incorrect — an individual RMD failure doesn't disqualify the whole plan for every participant.
    • B. Incorrect — the consequence is a tax penalty, not forfeiture of the account.
    • C. Incorrect — a penalty generally does apply to the missed amount, though relief may sometimes be available for reasonable cause.
    • D. Correct — the excise tax penalty applies specifically to the shortfall amount.

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