Series 6 Transactions and Settlement Practice Questions

  1. Question 1

    A fund's first sales-charge breakpoint is $50,000. A customer wants to invest $48,000, and the representative does not mention the breakpoint. What is the problem?

    • A. There is no problem, because the customer chose the amount and the representative simply followed the instructions given.
    • B. Tell the customer about the breakpoint and ways to reach it, such as a letter of intent, since a lower rate is available.
    • C. There is no problem, as long as the prospectus lists the breakpoint schedule somewhere in the fee table.
    • D. The only problem is that the order must be split into two tickets before it can be processed correctly.
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Tell the customer about the breakpoint and ways to reach it, such as a letter of intent, since a lower rate is available.

    Selling an amount just below a breakpoint without disclosing the discount is a breakpoint sale, which is a violation of fair dealing. The representative must make the customer aware of the opportunity to pay less.

    • A. Wrong: following instructions does not excuse withholding the lower-cost option.
    • B. Correct: breakpoint disclosure and a path to qualify are required.
    • C. Wrong: a prospectus listing does not discharge the duty to inform the customer.
    • D. Wrong: splitting the ticket has nothing to do with the breakpoint issue.
  2. Question 2

    Which statement about order types for open-end mutual fund shares is correct?

    • A. A customer may enter a limit order to buy at a specified NAV, and it will execute when the NAV reaches that level.
    • B. A customer may enter a stop order that triggers when the fund's price falls to a stated level during the day.
    • C. A customer may enter a fill-or-kill order to be executed at the intraday price at the time of order.
    • D. Orders are executed only at the next calculated NAV, so limit and stop orders are not available.
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Orders are executed only at the next calculated NAV, so limit and stop orders are not available.

    Open-end funds are priced once per day and are bought and sold at the next computed NAV. Price-contingent order types apply to exchange-traded products such as ETFs and closed-end funds, not to open-end fund shares.

    • A. Wrong: there is no price-contingent order for an open-end fund.
    • B. Wrong: the fund has no intraday price for a stop to trigger on.
    • C. Wrong: open-end funds have no intraday price against which a fill-or-kill could execute.
    • D. Correct: forward pricing at the next NAV means no limit or stop orders.
  3. Question 3

    Under the FINRA Code of Arbitration Procedure, a claim generally is NOT eligible for submission once how much time has passed since the event that gave rise to it?

    • A. Six years
    • B. One year
    • C. Three years
    • D. Ten years
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Six years

    The FINRA customer and industry codes make a dispute ineligible for arbitration when more than six years have passed since the occurrence or event giving rise to the claim.

    • A. Correct: six years.
    • B. Wrong: one year is much shorter than the eligibility period.
    • C. Wrong: three years is shorter than the eligibility period.
    • D. Wrong: ten years is longer than the eligibility period.
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  5. Question 4

    A customer buys shares of an exchange-traded fund on a Monday, and no holidays fall that week. Under the regular-way settlement cycle, when does the trade settle?

    • A. Tuesday, one business day after the trade date
    • B. Wednesday, two business days after the trade date
    • C. Monday, the same day as the trade date
    • D. Friday, the end of the week of the trade date
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Tuesday, one business day after the trade date

    The regular-way settlement cycle for most securities, including ETFs, is T+1: one business day after trade date. A Monday trade therefore settles on Tuesday. T+2 was the former cycle and same-day settlement is cash settlement.

    • A. Correct: T+1 is Tuesday.
    • B. Wrong: T+2 was the earlier standard cycle.
    • C. Wrong: same-day settlement is a cash settlement, not regular way.
    • D. Wrong: no standard cycle settles at the end of the week.

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